Originally Posted by
Suppressed Poet
Going back to the 2nd amendment because that is what I am much more familiar with, it clearly says the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. If I were making your same argument, I could say that clearly means exactly what it says in plain text. We have a constitutional and historical interpretation that felons & dangerous criminals should be prohibited from possessing firearms. Did the authors purposely leave out except for felons & dangerous criminals or except for XYZ weapons; and does that mean you would interpret that our government has no authority to restrict access to any weapon or people bearing arms?
I've already made the argument further back that they left a lot of vagueness in that Amendment, and they were a lot more Specific throughout the 14th.
Last edited by Gelston; 01-22-2025 at 09:29 AM.
Ceterum censeo Carthaginem esse delendam